Nitin Patil’s Chemistry Academy
Std – XII AIEEE
Section – CA – 01 Full Test – IV Group - 01
1. What effect does the branching of an alkane chain has on its boiling point?
a) Greater the branching in an alkane chain, lower is the boiling point
b) Greater the branching in an alkane chain, grater is the boiling point
c) Chain structure of an alkane has no effect on boiling point
d) Boiling point of alkane has the same trend as its melting point
2. The reaction CH3COCH3 + CN- (CH3)2 C(CN) (OH) is an example of
a) Electrophillic substitution reaction b) Bimolecular neucleophillic substistution reaction
c) Electrophillic addition reaction d) Nucleophilic addition reaction
3. The correct of increasing basic strength is
a) CH3 – CH2- < CH2 = CH2 < C = C b) CH = C < CH2 = CH- < CH3 = CH2 – CH2¬-
c) CH2 – CH- < CH3 – CH2 – CH = C- d) CH3 – CH2 - < CH = C- < CH2 – CH-
4. Conversion of benzene into m – nitrochloro benzene can be done by the following steps
a) Step – I – nitration of benzene step – II – chirorination of nitrobenzene
b) Step – I – chlorination of benzenestep – II- Nitration of chlorobene
c) Step – I reaction of benzene with nitrogen step – II – reaction of the product of step – I with benzene
5. In the reaction
CHO
l
H C H O + A + B
A
A and B are
CH2OH COONa
l l
a) and HCOONa b) and CH3OH
COONa O- Na+
l l
c) and Na2CO3 d) and HCOONa
6. In semicarbazide there are the nitrogen’s (marked as 1 and 2). The lone pair on N- 2 only attacks on carbonyl carbon and not lone pair of N – 1 because
a) N – 2 being directly connected to middle nitrogen is very electron rich
b) N – 2 is sterically less hindered
c) the lone pair on N – 1 is involved in resonance
d) both N – 1 and N – 2 lone pairs attack with equal probability
7. In the reaction
NO2
⁄
A B C
The Product is
NO2
l NH2 CI
⁄ ⁄
a) b) c) d)
\ \
NO2 CI
8. Amino group (-NH2) is o – p – directing for electrophillic aromatic substation but aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m – nitroaniline because
a) due to presence of acid during nitration, - NH2 group in aniline is protonated and becomes m – directing
b) – NH2 group is strongly deactivating hence it directs the new electrophile (NO2+) to meta position
c) when NO2 is at meta position the compound becomes mere stable since meta position is not in conjugation with lone pair of nitrogen on – NH2 group
d) none of these
9. The presence of benzoquinone inhibits the free radical polymerization of a vinyl derivative because
a) benzoquinone itself attacks on vinyl carbon to form a different compound which gives back the substrate
b) benzoquinone traps the free radical intermediate to form a non – reactive radical which is stabilized by resonance
c) benzoquinone acts as a chain transfer agent which leads to the lowering of molecular mass of polymer
d) benzoquinone having conjugation in the ring is capable of doing 1, 4- polymerization hence inhibits the free radical polymerization.
10. In the Lassigne’s test for nitrogen in an organic compound. The Prussian blue colour is obtained due to formation of
a) Na4 [Fe(CN)6] b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6] c) Fe2[Fe(CN)6] d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4
11. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCI to give CaCI2 and CO2 according to the reaction CaCO3 + 2HCI CaCI2 + CO2 + H2O
The mass of CaCO3 which reacts completely with 0.73 g of HCI is
a) 1000 g b) 100 g c) 10 g d) 1 g
12. Number of hydrogen bonded water molecules associated CuSO4 5H2O is / are
a) One b) two c) three d) four
13. Which out of the following is not correct?
a) (CH3)3 N is tetrahedral whereas (SiH3)3 N is planar triangular
b) All the tetrahalides of lead are known except Pbl4
c) SiCI4 is hydrolysed whereas CCI4¬ is not
d) [SiCI6]2- is know but [SiF6]2- is unknown
14. BCI3 does not dimerise whereas AICI3 dimerises because
a) boron, being very small, is sterically protected
b) the ionization energy of boron is larger than that of aluminium
c) aluminium has vacant d – orbitals of suitable energy
d) None of these
15. The Product is
CH2 CH3 NO2 OH
l l l l
a) b) c) d)
l l
NO2 NO2
The correct order of the above for their decreasing reactivity towards an electrophite (E+) is
a) I > II > III > IV b) IV > III > II > I c) IV > I > II > III d) III > II > I > IV
16. The product (s) formed on electrolysis of potassium propionate (C2H5COOK) is/are
a) butane b) ethane & ethene c) ethyl propanoate d) All of these
17. Select the correct statement from the following
a) BeO and BeSO4 are insoluble in water
b) BaSO4 is soluble but BaO is soluble in water
c) NaHCO3 is more soluble than KHCO3 in water
d) Lil is more solute than KI in ethanol
18. Two gases X and Y have same ‘b’ value but ‘a’ value X is larger than of gas Y ( a and b are van der Waals constants) Which of the following is true?
a) Gas X can be liquefied easily since ‘a’ value for it is greater.
b) Gas Y can be liquefied easily since ‘a’ value for it is less.
c) Gases X and Y can be liquefied with equal extent as the ‘b’ value for each gas is same
d) Gases X and Y cannot be liquefied
19. The following date are obtained when dinitrogen and dioxygen combine to form different compounds
Experiment Mass of dinitrogen Mass of dioxygen
I 14 g 16 g
II 28 g 64 g
III 28 g 80 g
Which law of chemical combination is obeyed by the above experimental data?
a) Law of conservation of mass b) Law of constant proportions
c) Law of multiple proportions d) None of these
20. The vapour pressure of a solution having 2.0 g of a solute X (molar mass 32) in 100 g of CS2 (Vapour pressure 854 torr) is 848.9 torr. The molecular formula of the solute is
a) X b) X2 c) X4 d) X8
21. For the reaction 2 A (g) + B(g) 2D(g). ∆U0300K = - 100 kJ mole -1 and ∆S0300K = - 45 JK-1 mol-1. The reaction
a) Will be spontaneous b) will not be spontaneous c) will beat equilibrium
d) is endothermic
22. Which one of the following is a reaction of zero order?
a) N2O5 2NO2 + 1/202 b) H2 + CI2 2HCI
c) PCI5 PCI3 + CI2 d) 2 FeCI3 + SnCI2 2FeCI2 + SnCI4
23. Which of the following is most effective in the coagulation of a ferric hydroxide sol?
a) CI- b) Br- c) NO3-3 d) SO42-
24. The time required to deposit one Millimoles of aluminium metal by the passage of 9.65 ampere through aqueous solution of aluminium ion is
a) 30 s b) 10 s c) 30,000 s d) 10, 000 s
25. The E0 M3+/M2+ values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are – 0.41, +1.97 V respectively. For which on of these metals the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest?
a) Cr b) Mn c) Fe d) Co
26. The rate equation for the reaction 2A + B → C is found to be rate = K[A][B] . The correct statement in relation to this reaction is that the
a) Unit of K must the
b) t is constant
c) rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A
d) value of K is independent of the initial concentration of A and B
27. Consider the following nuclear reaction
92M238 YNX + 2 2He4
YNX BLA + 2 +
The number of neutrons is in L is
a) 142 b) 144 c) 140 d) 146
28. Maximum enol content is in
O O O
ll ll ll
a) C b) C C
O O O
ll ll ll
c) C d) C C
H
29. 6.02 x 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is
a) 0.001 M b) 0.01 M
c) 0.02 M d) 0.01 M
30. Which of the following FCC structure contains cations in alternate tetrahedral voids?
a) NaCI b) Na2O c) ZnS d) CaF2
31. The oxidation number of TI TII3 is
a) +3 b) both A and B c) +1 d) none of these
32. SO2 molecule has two sigma ( ) and two pi ( ) bond. If bonding occurs in xy plane then one overlap can occure between the 3pz orbital on S and 2pz orbital on one O –atom. The other overlap can occur between 2pz orbital on other O- atom and a d – orbital on S. Which d – orbital on S is in correct orientation to form the - bond?
a) dz2 b) dZY c) dZX d) None of these
33. Which one of the following is not the cause of stability of half – filled sub – shells?
a) Symmetrical distribution of electrons
b) Having paralled spins, the unpaired electrons avoid each other and screen less
c) Half filled sub shells differ less in their energies
d) These electrons exachange theire positions and relase energy
34. Which of the following is least soluble?
a) MgSO4 b) CaSO4 c) SrSO4 d) BaSO4¬
35. A mixture of dihydrogen and dioxyen at 1 bar pressure contains 20% by weight of dihydrogen. The partial pressure of dihydrogen will be
a) 0.80 bar b) 0.20 bar c) 1 bar d) none of these
36. If the electronic configuration of carbon is written as 1s0 then electrons are chose to the nucleus hence should be stable, but which principle (or rule) will be violated if we write the electronic configuration of carbon as 1s6 ?
a) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity b) Pauli exlustio principle
c) Aufbau Principle d) None of these
37. The work function of metal surface is 2.13 eV. If a photon of wavelength 4 x 10-7 m strikes on metal surface, the kinetic energy of emission is
a) 8.52 x 10-7 J b) 8.52 eV c) 0.97 eV d) 2.13 eV
38. H3PO3 can be represented by the structures I and II as shown below
H
•• •• •• •• •• ••
H O P O H
?
These two structures (I & II) can be taken as
a) canonical forms b) tautometic forms
c) anomeric forms d) None of these
39. A student to add the reaction mixture to the round bottomed flask at 270 C but instead be placed flask on the flame. After a lapses of time relazed his mistake, and using pyrometer he found that the temperature of the flack was 4770 C. The fraction of air which have be expelled out
a) 2/5 b) 3/5 c) ½ d) 1/3
40. In a reaction A + B2 AB2, 4 moles of A and 3 moles of B were taken. Which of the following is correct?
a) A is the limiting reagent
b) B2 is the limiting reagent
c) A and B2 both will be consumed completely during the reaction
d) Equal moles of A and B2 Will be left at the end of the reaction
41. H3BO3 is
a) monobasic and weak lewis acid b) monobasic and strong lewis acid
c) monobasic and strong lewis acid d) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid
42. The complex ion which has no d- electrons in the central metal atom is
a) [MnO4] b) [Co(NH3)6]3+
c) [Fe(CN)6] d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
43. Which of the following alkaline earth metal ion has highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution?
a) Be2+ b) Mg+ c) Ba2+ d) Ca2+
44. Packing efficiency in body centered unit cell is
a) /6 b) / 8
c) / 3 d)
45. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with
a) HCHO b) CH3CHO
c) (CH2OH)2 d) CH3COCH3
46. The total number of protons in 10g of CaCO3 is
a) 1.5057 x 1024 b) 2.0478 x 1024
c) 3.0115 x 1024 c) 4.095 x 1024
47. In the reaction 4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) → + 6H2O. When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react up to completion and
a) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced b) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
c) all the O2 will be consumed d) all the NH3 will be consumed
48. The wave number of the first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series is
a) 5R/36 b) 3R/4 c) 7R / 144 d) 9R / 400
49. For a d – electron angular momentum of an electron in 2s orbital is
a) b) h / 2
c) d)
50. The radial part of an atomic orbital wave function depends upon
a) n b) n and
c) n, l and m d) l and m
51. The density of nitrogen is maximum at
a) STP b) 2730 K and 2 atm
c) 546 K and 1 atm c) 546 K and 4 atm
52. A bottle of dry ammonia and one of dry hydrogen chloride are connected through a long tube. The stoppers at both ends of the tube are opened simuitaneously. The white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be
a) at the centre of the tube b) near the hydrogen chloride bottle
c) near the ammonia bottle d) thought the length of the tube
53. A compound whose molecules are superimposable on their mirror images even though they contain asymmetric carbon atoms is called
a) a meso compound b) an erythro isomer
c) a threo isomer c) a glycol
54. Which of the following compounds is optically active?
a) (CH3)2 CHCH2OH b) CH3CH2OH
c) CCI2F2 d) CH3CHOHC2H5
55. The correct statement about the compounds A, B and C
COOCH2 COOH COOH
H OH HO H H OH
H OH HO H OH H
COOH COOH2 COOCH3
a) A and B are identical b) A and B are diastereomers
c) A and C are enantiomeres c) A and B are enantiomers
56. How many bonds are there in
a) 14 , 8 b) 18 , 8 c) 19 , 4 d) 14 , 2
57. The incorrect IUPAC name is
O
ll
a) CH3 – C – CH – CH3 b) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
l l l
CH3 CH3 CH2 – CH3
2 – Methyl – 3 – butanone 2, 3 – dimethylpentane
c) CH3 – C = C – CH(CH3)2 d) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
l l
4 – Methylpent – 2 – yne 2 – Bromo – 3 – chlorobutane
58. The IUPAC name for the given compound CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3 – CH3 is
a) 4 – Ethylpent – 2 – ene b) 1- Ethyl – 3 – methyl – 3 – methybut – 2- ene
c) 3 – methylhex – 4 – en – 1 – yne d) 4 – Methylhex – 2 – en – 5 – yne
59. How many H – atoms are present in 0.046 g of ethanol?
a) 6 x 1020 b) 1.2 x 1021
c) 3 x 1021 d) 3.6 x 1021
60. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2g of nitride ion (N3-) are
a) 2.4 NA b) 4.2 NA
c) 3.2 NA d) 1.6 NA
Sub – Chemistry
Section – CA – 02.
Full Test – III Group - 01
1. The electronic configuration 1s2 2p5 2p5 3s1 shows
a) ground state of fluorine b) excited state of fluorine
c) excited state of neon atom d) excited state of O2-1 ion
2. Which of the following statement is false?
a) The product of pressure volume of fixed amount of a gas in dependent of temperature
b) Molecule of different gases have the same KE at a given temperature
c) The gas equation is not valid at high pressure and low temperature
d) The gas constant per molecule is known as Boltzmann constant
3. If NA is Avogadro’s number then number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ions (N3-) is
a) 2.4 NA b) 4.2 N¬A c) 1.6 NA d) 3.2 N¬A
4. The percentage of oxygen in NaOH is
a) 10 b) 8 c) 60 d) 40
5. For reaction A + B C + D, doubling the concentration of both the reactants increases the reaction rate by 8 times and doubling intial concentration of only B simply doubles the reaction rate, the rate law is given as
a) r = K[A] [B] b) r = K [A]2 [B]
c) r = K[A] [B]2 d) r = [A]1/2 [B] ½
6. A chemical reaction carrid out at 300K and 280 K, the constant were found to be K1 and K2 respectively then
a) K2 = 4K b) K2 = 2K1
c) K2 = 0.25 k1 d) K2 = 0.5 K1
7. If Kp for a reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g) + D(g) is 0.05 atm at 1000K. Its Kc in twms of R will be
a) 200000 R b) 0.02 R
c) 5.0 x 10-5 R d)
8. For reaction:
I: CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g), Pco2 = 2 atm
II: CO2 (g) + C(s) 2CO(g), K = 6 atm. Hence, equilibrium constant Kp (in the same unit)
For the reaction, CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + 2CO2 (g) is
a) 8 b) 4 c) 12 d) 3
9. A mixture of a weak acid (say acetic acid) and its salt with a strong base (say sodium acetate) is a buffer solution. Which other pair of substance from the following may have a similar property?
a) HCI and NaCI b) KOH and KCI c) NaOH and NaNO3 d) NH4 OH and NH4CI
10. Which of the following molecules has three fold axes of symmetriy?
a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24
11. Which of the following molecules has three fold axes symmetriy?
a)NH3 b) C2H4 c) CO2 d) SO2
12. KF combins with HF to form, KHF2. This compound contains the species.
a) K+, F- and H+ b) K+ F- and HF
c) K+ and [HF2]¬- d) [KHF]- and F2
13. In the periodic table with the increases in the atomic number, the metallic character of the element
a) decreases in a period and increases in group
b) increases in a period and decreases in group
c) increase both in a period and group
d) decreases both in a period and a group
14. Which is a Lewis base?
a) B2H6 b) LiAIH4 c) AIH3 d) NH3
15. The conjugate base of H2PO42- is
a) PO3-4 a) HPO3-4 c) H3PO4 d) P2O5
16. The IUPAC name of the following compound. O O
is
a) propionic anhydride b) dipropionic anhydride
c) ethoxy propionic acid d) propanoic anhydride
17. The chirality of the compound
a) R b) S c) Z d) E
18. For decolurisation of 1mole KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is / are
a) 1/2 b) 3/2 c) 5 /2 d) 7 / 2
19. What is the standard cell potential for the cell?
Zn;Zn2+ (1M) II Cu2 (1M); Cu (E0 for Zn2+/ Zn = -0.76; E0 for Cu2+/Cu = +0.34)
a) -0.76 + (-0.34) = -0.42 V b) -0.34 + 0.76 = + 0.42 V
c) 0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10V d) -0.76 – (+.34) = 1.10 V
20. Solution which distill without change in composition or temperature is called
a) amorphous mixture b) azeotropic mixture c) cooling mixture d) refrigerant
21. The osmotic pressure of 5% (w/v) solution of care sugar at 1500C (mol mass of sugar = 342) is
a) 4.0 atm b) 5.07 atm c) 3.55 atm d) 2.45 atm
22. If ‘Z’ is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest sequence – ABC ABC-, the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to
a) Z b) 2Z c) Z/2 d) Z/4
23. The standard molar heat of formation of ethane, CO2 and H2O(I) are respectively – 21.1 – 94 and – 68.3 kcal. The standard molar heat of combustion of ethane will be
a) -372 kcal b) -240 kcal c) 162 kcal d) 183.5 kcal
24. 5 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 2 atm at
300 K. What is the larget mass can be lifted through a height of 1 metre in this expansion?
a) -20.07 x 103 kg b) 2048.47 kg c) 20.4 kg d) 204.8 kg
25. Indicate the organic structure for product expected when 2-mithyl propene is heated with acetyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous ZnCI2
O O CH3
a) CH3 – C – C = CH2 b) CH3 – C – C – CH3
l l
CH3 CH3
CH3 O H O
ll ll l ll
c) CH3 – C – CH2 – C – C – CH3 d) CH3 – C- CH2 – C – CH3
l l
CI CI
26. Which of the following carbides gives propyne of hydrolysis?
a) AI4C3 b) Mg2C3 c) B4C d) La4C3
27. Arylhalides are less reactive towards nuclephilic substitution reactions as compared to alkyl halides due to
a) the formation of less stable carbonium ion
b) resonance stabilization
c) larger carbon – halogen bond
d) the inductive effect
28. The slag obtained during the extraction of copper from copper pyrites is composed mainly of
a) CaSiO3 b) FeSiO3 c) Cu2S d) SuSiO3
29. The reagent commonly used to determine hardness of water titrimetrically is
a) oxalic acid b) hypo c) disodium salt of EDTA d) Lunar caustic
30. Which of the following are arrangeb in correct increasing order of solubilities?
a) CaCO3 < KHCO3 < NaHCO3 b) NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < CaCO3
c) KHCO3 < NaHCO3 < CaCO3 d) CaCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3
31. Blanc fixe used in paints is
a) finely divided BaSO4 b) paste of Mg(OH)2
c) suspension of slaked lime d) MgCI2. 5 MgO.5H2O
32. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) BF3 is the weakest lewis acid b) BF3 exist as dimmer
c) Ammonal is a mixture of aluminium compounds and is used in bombs
d) BCI2 does not conduct electricity in its molten state
33. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of benzene because
a) borazole is nonpolar compound b) borazole is polar compound
c) borazole is electron deficient compound d) of localized electrons in it
34. XeF4 on partial hydrolysis produces
a) XeF4 b) XeOF2 c) XeOF4 a) XeO3
35. HF present as impurity in gaseous F2 cab be removed by passing over
a) P2O5 b) NaF c) H2SO4 d) CaCI2
36. The ion that can undergo, disoproponation is
a) CIO4- b) CIO3- c) CIO2- d) CIO-
37. When AgNO3 is added a solution of Co(NH3)5 CI3 the precipitate f AgCI shows two ionizable chloride ions. This means
a) two ionizable chlorine atoms satisfy primary valency and one more non ionizable chlorine atom satisfies primary as well as secondary valency
b) one chlorine atom satisfies primary as well as secondary valency
c) three chlorine atoms satisfy primary valency
d) three chlorine atoms satisfy secondary valency
38. Which of the following is the stable complex?
a) K3[AI(C2O4)3] b) [Pt(en)2]CI2
c) [Ag(NH3)2]CI] d) K2[Ni(EDTA)]
39. Which of the following complex ions does not involve inner orbital hybridization.
a) [CoF6]3- b) [Co(NH3)6]3+
c) [Fe(CN)6]3- d) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
40. Which of the following complexes will have four isomers?
a) [Co(en) (NH3)2 CI2] CI b) [Co(PPh3)2 (NH3)2CI2] CI
c) [Co(en)3]CI3 d) [Co(en)2CI2]CI
41. The complex used as an anticancer agent is
a) mer – [Co(NH3)3CI3] b) cis – [PICI2(NH3)2]
c) cis – K2 [PtCI2Br2] d) Na2 [CoCI4]
42. When MnO2 is fused with KOH in the presence of air, coloured compound is formed , the product and its colour is
a) K2MnO4, dark green b) KMnO4, purple
c) Mn2O3, brown d) Mn3O4, black
43. Rinmann’s green is
a) FeSO4, 7H2O b) CrCI3
c) CoO.ZnO d) NiSO4, 7H2O
44. Which of an example of chlorodising roasting?
a) Ag2S + 2NaCI → 2AgCI + Na2S b) PbS + 2O2 → PbSO4
c) AgCI + 2Hg → AIHg + HgCI d) Both (A) & (C)
45. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 + CI2 → CH3CH2CH2CH2CI + CH3 – CH – CH2CH3
(A) l
CI
(B)
The percentage of ‘A’ & ‘B’ is respectively
a) 28 and 72 b) 30 and 70
c) 25 and 75 d) 60 and 40
46. CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH3 A; what is A?
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – Br b) CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2Br
l
Br
c) CH3 – CH – CH = CH2 d) CH3 – CH2 – C = CH2
l l
Br Br
47. Br2 Zn (i) (BH3)2
(A) (B)
(CH2CI2 CH2COOH ii) H2O2, OH-
In this reaction A, B and C are respectively
Br OH
a)
Br OH
b) and
Br
Br COCH3 OH
c)
Br COCH3 OH
d) and
COCH3
48. Which of the following alcohols will dehydrate most rapidly when treated with cons H2SO4?
CH3
l
a) CH2 – CH – C – CH3 b) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
l l l l
OH CH3 CH3 OH
CH3
l
a) CH2 – C – CH – CH3 b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 - OH
l l
OH CH3
49. In the reaction
Zn/Hg
Conc.HC
> C = O NH2 – NH2 B
KOH
Red P/HI
2500 C
Which of the following is correct?
a) ‘A’ is an aldehydes. B is ketone and C is an alkene
b) ‘A’ B and C are alkenes
c) A , B and C are akanes
d) A and B are alkenes white ‘C’ is an akane
50. Which on of the following four hydrogens is most acidic?
CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3
(II) (III) (IV)
H
(I)
a) (I) b) (II) c) (III) d) (IV)
51. which of the following is Schmidt reaction?
a) RCH2COOH R CH2 COBr b) RCOOH + N3H RNH2 + CO2 + N2
c) CO + NaOH → HCOONa d) RCOOLi + CH3 RCOCH3
52. Intemediate formed during reaction of RCONH withBr2 and KOH are
a) RCONHBr and RNCO b) RNHCOBr and RNCO
b) RNHBr and RCONHBr d) RCONBr2
53. Which of the following amines will show positive Lie bermann’s nitroso test?
CH3 – N – H CH3 – N – CH3
l l
a) b)
l
NO2
CH3 d) None of these
l
c) CH3 – N – CH3
54. Which one of the statement is true for protein synthesis (translation)?
a) Amino acids are directly recognize by m – RNA
b) The third base of the codon is less specific
c) Every t – RNA molecule has more than one amino acid attachement
d) All of these
55. In the nitration of benzene with a mixture of conc. HNO2 and conc. H2SO4, the active species is a) NO3- b) NO2+ c) NO2- d) O – N
56. Which of the following compounds reacts lower than benzene in electrophillic bromonation?
a) C6H5CH3 b) C6H5 –OH c) C6H5 – NO2 d) C6H5 – NH2
57. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
a) killing the germs b) destroying enzyme action
c) sealing the food with a layer of ice d) reducing the rate of biochemical reaction
58. A raw material used in making nylon is
a) ethylene b) butadiene c) adipic acid d) isoprece
59. The dyes which are applied to the fabric in the colourless reduced state and then oxidized to coloured state are called
a) ethylene b) butadiene c) adipic acid d) azodyes
60. 2 – Acetoxy benzoic acid is used as an
a) anti malarial b) antidepressant c) antiseptic d) antipyetic
Chemistry
Section – CA – 01
Full Test – V Group – 0
1. The volume of concentrated sulphuric acid (98 mass % H2SO4, density 1.84 g cm-3) required to prepare 5 dm3 of 0.5 mol dm-3 solution of sulphuric acid is
a) 68 cm3 b) 136 cm3 c) 204 cm3 d) 272 cm3
2. A 2.0g mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 suffered loss of 0.12g on heating. The percentage of Na2CO3 in the mixture is
a) 83.8 b) 16.2 c) 38.8 d) 61.2
3. An insecticide contains 47.5% C, 2.54% H and 50% CI by mass. Its empirical formula is
a) C13H8CI5 b) C14H9CI5 c) C12H10CI5 d) C15H12CI6
4. The unit of amount of substance’s is
a) g b) cm3 c) kg d) mol
5. Which of the following expressions between the van der Waals constant ‘b’ and the radius ‘r’ of spherical molecules is true?
a) b = b) b = c) b = 2 d) b = 4
6. The following equilibria are given
N2 + 3H2 2NH3;K1
N2 + O2 2NO; K2
H2 + O2 H2O; K3
The equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2NH3 + O2 2NO + 3H2O, in terms of K1, K2 and K3 is a) K2K /K a) K1 K2 K3 a) K1 K2 / K3 is a) K1 K / K2
7. pKa, and pK of H2CO3 are 6.38 and 10.26 respectively. The pH of 1M NaHCO3 are
a) 8.32, 7.32 b) 7.32, 8.32 c) 8.32 d) 7.32, 7.32
8. pKa, pKa, and pKa, of H3PO4 are respectively x, y and y and z. pHof 0.1 M Na2HPO4 solution is
a)1 b) (x – y) c) (y + z) d) (x + y + z)
9. pH of the solution containing 50.0 mL of 0.3 M HCI and 50.0 mL of 0.4M NH3 is [Given pKa (NH) = 9.26
a) 4.74 b) 9.26 c) 8.78 d) 4.63
10. pH at which an acidic icidic indicator with Kin = 1 x 10-5 changes colour when the indicator is 1x 10-3 M is
a) 8 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5
11. The reaction is carried out at 100 C and its temperature is increased upto 1000 C. Then how many times rate of reaction will become.
a) 20 times b) 210times c) both (A) & (B) d) 25 times
12. The rate of reaction that does not involve gases does not depend upon
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Concentration d) Catalyst
13. For the decomposition of HI at 1000K (2HI → H2 + I2) the following data were obtained.
[HI] M Rate of decomposition of HI (mol L-1s-1]
0.1 2.75 x 10-8
0.2 11 x 10-8
0.3 24.75 x 10-8
The order of reaction is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 1.5
14. A reaction, A → B, involves following mechanism
i) A B (fast)
i) B C (slow)
i) C D (fast)
The rate of reaction is
a) Rate = k1[A] b) Rate = k2 [B] c) Rate = k3[C] d) Rate = k1 k2 k3 [B] [C]
15. In first order reaction, the concentration of the reactants is reduced to 25% in one hour. The half life period of the reaction is
a) 2 Hrs b) 4 Hrs c) 1/2 Hrs d) 1/4 Hrs
16. In solution of 7.8 g benzene (C6H6) and 46.0g toluene (C6H5CH3), the mole fraction of benzene is
a) 1/6 b) 1/5 c) 1/2 d) 1/3
17. The vapour pressure of two pure liquids (A) and (B) are 100 and 80 torr respectively. The total pressure of solution obtained by mixing 2 mole of (A) and 3 mole of (B) would be
a) 120 torr b) 36 torr c) 88 torr d) 180 torr
18. The freezing point of equmolal solution will be highest for
a) C6H5NH3CI b) Ca (NO3)2 c) La (NO3)3 d) C6H12O6
19. During hydrogenation of oils catalyst commonly used is
a) Pd or CuCI2 b) Finely divided Ni c)La(NO3)3 d) V2O5
20. A dilute solution of litmus becomes colouless on shaking with charcoal. This is due to
a) Pd or CuCI2 b) Adsorption c) Chemical reaction d) Both (A) and (B)
21. There is loss in mass when mixture of Li2CO3 and Na2CO3. 10H2O is heated strongly. The loss is due to
a) Li2CO3 only b) Na2CO3.10H2O only
c) both Li2CO3 and Na2CO3. d) none of these
22. Which of the following is least soluble in water?
a) BaCI2 b) SrCI2 c) CaCI2 d) MgCI2
23. The conductivity of the chlorides of IA group follows the order
a) K+ < Na+ < Li+ b) Li+ < Na+ < Be2+ c) Li+ < Be2+ < AI3+ d) Be2+ < Mg2+ < Ca2+
24. Gallium has smaller atomic radius than aluminium because of
a) poor shielding power of d electrons of Ga atom
b) poor shielding power of s electrons of Ga atom
c) greater shielding power of s electrons of AI atom
d) greater shieldin power of d electrons of Ga atom
25. Orthoboric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid giving H3O+ and
a) [B (OH)4]+ b) H2BO+2 c) [B(OH)4]- d) H2BO-2
26. Helium is added to oxygen used by deep sea divers because
a) it is less soluble in blood than nitrogen under high pressure
b) it is lighter than nitrogen
c) it is readily miscible with oxygen
d) it is less poisonous than nitrogen
27. Which of the following is not correct?
a) XeO3 has four and four bonds
b) The hybridization of Xe in XeF4 is sp3 d2
c) Among noble gases, the occurrence of argon is highest in air
d) Liquid helium is used as cryogenic liquid
28. Duma’s method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form of
a) NH3 b) N2 c) NaCN d) (NH4)2SO4
29. A compound contain 69.5% oxygen and 30.5% nitrogen and its molecular weight is 108. The formula of the compound is
a) N2O b) NO2 c) N2O4 d) N2O6
30. Vinyl carbionol is
a) HO – CH2 – CH = CH2 b) CH3 – CH = CH – OH
c) CH3 – CH = CH2 d) CH3 – C – CH2
l l
OH CH2OH
31. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give
a) alkenyl halides b) alkanes c) alkyl copper halides d) alkenes
32. Trans – 2 – butane + Br2 gives
33. The reagent(s) for the following conversion,
Br ?
H H
Br
is / are
a) alcohol KOH b) alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2
c) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2 d) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2
34. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICI3 to give predominantly
a) n – propylbenzene b) isopropylbenzene
c) 3 – propyl – 1- chlorobenzene d) no reaction
35. Pick out the wrong statement
a) Toluene shows resonance b) is non – aromatic
c) the hybrid state of carbon in carbonyl group is sp2
d) Dipole moment of vinyl chloride is less than of methyl chloride
Sub – Chemistry
Section – CA – 01
Full Test – I Group – 0
1. The number of atoms in 3.25g of NH3 is approximately
a) 7.8 x 1024 b) 4.6 x 1023 c) 6.02 x 1023 d) 6.0 x 1023
2. Two separate bulbs contains ideal gases A & B. The density of A is twice as that of gas B. If two gases are at same temperature, the ratio of the pressure of A to that of B is
a) 2 b) 1/2 c) 4 d) 1/4
3. In the emission of photoelectrons, the no of photo electrons emitted per unit time depend upon the
a) energy of incident radiation b) frequency of incident radiations
c) intensity of incident radiation d) none of these
4. 75% of first order reaction is complete in 30 minutes. What is the time required for 95% of the reaction (in minutes) ?
a) 120 b) 150 c) 135 d) 60
5. 4 moles of A are mixed with 4 moles of B when 2 moles of C are formed at equilibrium according to the reaction. A + B C + D. The value of equilibrium constant is
a) 4 b) 1/2 c) 1 d) 1/8
6. Auto ionization of liquid ammonia at 225K is
2 NH3 NH3++ NH2- with KNH2 = [NH4+] = 10-30. Number of amide ions. NH2- per mm3 of pure liquid NH3 at this temperature is
a) 30 b) 600 c) 100 d) 200
7. The hybridization of ‘Co’ in the octahedral complex ion [Co(CN)6]3- is
a) dsp2 b) sp3d2 c) d2sp3 d) sp3d
8. Eka – aluminium & eka – silicon are known as
a) gallum and germanium b) aluminium and silicon
c) iron and sulphur d) scandium and tacnicium
9. What is decreasing oreder of strength of the bases OH-, NH2-, HC = C- and CH3CH-
a) CH3CH2- > NH-2 > HC = C- > OH- b) CH3CH2 > CH = C and CH3 and CH3CH2-
c) CH = C- > CH3CH2 > NH2- OH- d) NH2- > CH = C- > OH- > CH3 CH2-
10. The process of separation of recimic mixture into (+) and (-) enantiomers is called a
a) recemisation b) resolution c) revolulution d) Walden inversion
11. The standard electrode potential for the half cell reaction are as
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e- (E0 = -0.76 V): Fe → Fe2+ + 2e- (E0 = 0.41V.) The emf of the cell reaction.
Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe is;
a) -0.35 V b) 0.35 V c) 1.17 V d) -1.17 V
12. 0.85 % aqueous solution of NaNO2 is apparently 90% dissociated. The osmotic pressure of solution at 300K is
a) 4.674 atm b) 46.74 atm c) 2.46 atm d) 4.674 atm
13. The edge length of fcc unit cell is 508 pm. If the radius of cation is 110 pm, the radius of anion is
a) 144 pm b) 288 pm c) 618 pm d) 398 pm
14. Heat of neutralization of strong acid against strong base is constant and is equal to
a) -13.7 k cal b) -57 kJ c) -5.7 x 104J d) all of these
O O
l l l l
15. CH3 – C = C – CH3 CH3 – C – C – CH3. What is ‘X’?
a) HNO3 b) O2 c) O2 d) KMnO4
16. How many monochlorobutanes will be obtained on chlorination of n-butane?
a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 1
17. Arrange the following halides in the decreasing order of SN1 reactivity, CH3CH2CH2C(I)
CH2 = CH CH (CI) CH3 (II), CH3CH2CH (CI) CH3 (III)
a) I > II > III b) II > I > III c) II > III > I d) III > II > I
18. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, the electrolyte used is
a) AI (OH)3 in NaOH solution b) an aqueous solution of AI2 (SO4)3
c) a molten mixture of AI2O3 and Na3AIF6 c) a mother mixture of AI2O3 and AI(OH)3
19. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) H2O2 has basic properties b) H2O2 has acidic prosperities
c) H2O2 can act as reducing agent d) H2O2 can act as an oxidizing agent
20. Na2S2O3. 5H2O is used in photography to
a) reduce AgBr to metallic Ag b) remove reduced Ag
c) convert metallic Ag to silver salt d) remove undecomposed AgBr
21. A colourless solid (x) on heating evolved CO2 and also gave a white residue, solution in water Residue also gave CO2 when treated with dilute acid (X) is
a) Na2CO3 b) CaCO3
c) NaHCO2 d) Ca(HCO3)2
22. The electric cookers have a coating that protects them against fire. The coating is made up of
a) heavy lead b) Zinc oxide c) NaHCO3 d) Ca(HCO¬3)2
23. Which of the following statement is correct for CsBr3 ions ?
a) It is a convlent compound b) It contains Cs+ and B- ions
c) It contains Cs+ and Br-3 ions d) It contains Cs+ Br- and Br2 molecule
24. What would happen when a solution of potassium chlorate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid?
a) Cr3- and Cr2O72- are formed b) Cr2O2-7 and H2O are formed
c) CrO42- is reduced to +3 state of Cr d) CrO42- is oxidized to +7 state of Cr
25. The effective atomic number of iron in [Fe(CN)6]3- is
a) 34 b) 36 c) 37 d) 35
26. R - CH2 – CH2 – OH can be converted into RCH2 CH2COOH by the following sequence of steps.
a) PBr3, KCN, H2O+ b) PBr3, KCN, H2/Pt
c) KCN, H2O d) HCN, PBr3. H3O
27. A typical compound underogoes cannizzaro’s reaction as well as aldol condersation. The possible compound is
a) (CH3)2 CHCHO b) CH3CH2CHO
c) C6 H5CHO d) HCHO
28. In a reaction involving ring substituton of C6H5, the major product is meta-isomer. The group ‘Y’ can be
a) – NH2 b) – COOH
c) - CH3 c) – CI
29. CH3CH2CI Na CN X Ni/H2 Y Acetic Z ; What is ‘Z’?
a) CH3CH2 CH2NH COCH3 b) CH3CH2CH2NH2
c) CH3CH2 CH2 CH2 CONH CH3 d) CH3CH2 CH2 CONH COCH3
30. Ozone in stratosphere is depleted by
a) CF2CI2 b) C7F16 c) C6H6 CI6 d) C6F6
31. Teflon is a polymer of
a) tetra fluro ethylene b) tetra iodo ethylene
c) tetra bromoethylene d) tetra chloro ethylene
32. Which of the following element is responsible for oxidation of water to O2 in biological processes?
a) Fe b) Mn c) Cu d) Mo
33. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of
a) Jaundice b) Typhoid c) Syphills d) Cholera
34. As2S3 Sol is
a) Positive colloid b) negative colloid c) neutral colloid d) none of these
35. Which of the following is the scientific method to test presence of water in a liquid?
a) smell b) teste c) use d) use of anhydrous copper sulphate
Sub – Chemistry
Full Test – III (Group – 0)
Code : 9206.0
Part – A
1. The de Broglie wavelength of the tennis ball of mass 60g34 moving with a velocity of 10 metrees per second is approximately (Planck’s constant, (h = 6.63 x 10-34
a) 10-33 metre b) 10-31 metree c) 10-16 metre d) 10-25 metre
2. Which of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(At. Number Cs – 55, Br 35)
a) Na+ , Ca2+, Mg b) N3- F-, Na+ c) Be, AI3+ d) Ca2+, Cs+, Br
3. As the temperature is raised from 200C to 400C, the average kinetic energy of neon atoms changes by a factor of which of the following?
a) 1/2 b) c) d) 2
4. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is a characheristic of elements of
a) radioactive series b) high atomic masses c) d – block d) f – block
5. The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is
a) H2S < SiH2 < NH3 < BF3 b) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3
c) H2 S< NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 d) H2S < NH2 < BF3 < SiH4
6. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following statements is true for these two species?
a) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO b) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
c) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO d) Bond length in unpredictable
7. Among the following four structures I to IV.
I. C2 H5 – CH(CH3) – C7H7 II. CH3 – CH2 – CH(CH3) – C2H5
III. CH3 III. C2H5 - CH(CH3) – C2H5
It is true that
a) only II and IV are chiral compounds b) all for are chiral compounds
c) only is chiral compounds d) only III is a chiral compound
8. The general formula CnH2nO2 could be for open chain
a) diadelydes b) diketones c) carboxylic acids d) diols
9. The most acidic carboxylic acid is
a) PhCOOH b) o – NO2C6H4COOH
c) p – NO2C6H4COOH d) m – CH3C6H4COOH
10. Which of the following is the strongest base?
a) NH2 b) NHCH3 c) NH2 d) CH2NH2
CH3
11. Which one of following processes will processes will produce hard water?
a) saturation of water with CaCO3 b) saturation of water with MgCO3
c) saturation of water with CaSO4 d) addition Na2SO4 to water
12. The solubilities of carbonates decrease down the magnesium group due to decrease in
a) entropy of solution formation b) lattice energies of solids
c) hydration energies of cartions d) inter-ionic attraction
13. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in:
a) exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds b) forming polymeric hybrids
c) forming covalent halides d) exhibiting amphoteric amphoteric nature in their oxides
14. What valume of hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1 atm. pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?
a) 22.4 L b) 89.6 L c) 67.2 L d) 44.8 L
15. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to mell. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite
a) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bounded atoms
b) is a non crystalline substance
c) is an allotropic from of diamond
d) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers
16. The number of lone pair of electrons present on Xe in XeF2 is …….
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
17. The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La = 57 ) is 1.06 A. Which of one of the following given values will be closed to the radius of Lu3+
a) 0.85 A b) 1.60 A c) 1.40 A d) 1.06 A
18. The compound formed in the positive test for nitrogen with the Lassaige solution of an organic compound is
a) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3 b) Na3[Fe( CN)6] c) Fe(CN)3 d) Na4[Fe(CN)5 NOS]
19. The ammonia evoled from the treatment of 0.30g of an organic compound, for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The organic compound is
a) acetamide b) benzamide c) urea d) thiourea
20. Which of the following does not have sp2 hybridized carbon?
a) Acetone b) Acetic acid c) Acetonitrile d) Acetamide
21. Rate of reaction is fastest when Z is
a) CI b) NH2 c) OC2 d) OCOCH3
22. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon
a) the differences in initial or final temperature of involve substances
b) the physical states of reactants and products
c) use of different reaction for the same product.
d) the nature of intermediate reaction steps
23. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm the collected rain water will have a pH value
a) which depends on the amount of dust in air
b) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm
c) slightly highest than that when the thunderstorm is not there
d) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunder strom
24. In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and P and in which only pressure – volume work is being done, the change in Gibbs free energy (dG) and change in entropy (dS), satisfy the criteria
a) (dS)v E = 0, (dG)T, p > 0 b) (dS)v E = < O, (dG)T, p < 0
c) (dS)v, E = 0, (dG)¬T , p < 0 d) (dS)v, E = 0, (dG)T, p = 0
25. What is the conjugate base of OH-?
a) O- b) O-2 c) O2 d) H2O
26. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) pH = b) p H = log c) [H+] = 10-pH d) PH = - log[H+]
27. The number of hydrogen atom (s) attached to phosphorus atom in hyophoshorus acid is
a) two b) three c) Zero d) one
28. Which one of the following nitrates will leave behind a metal strong heating?
a) Silver nitrate b) Ferric nitrate c) Copper nitrate d) Manganese nitrate
29. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are respectively +0.5 V, -3.0
a) A > C > B b) B > C > A c) A > B > C d) C > B > A
30. At TK, 100 litres of dry oxygen is present in a sealed container. It is subjected to silent electric discharge, till the volume of oxygen and ozone become equal. What it the volume (in litres) of ozone formed at TK?
a) 50 b) 60 c) 30 d) 40
31. Which among the following factors in the most important in making flurine the strongest oxidizing halogen?
a) Electron affinity b) Ionization enthalpy c) Hydration enthalphy d) Bond dissociation energy
32. If liquids A and B from an ideal solution
a) the free energy as wll as the entropy of mixing are each zero
b) the enthalpy of mixing is Zero
c) the entropy of mixing is Zero
d) the free energy of mixing is Zero
33. If is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, the vant Hoff’s factor (i) used for calculating the m molecular mass is
a) 1 + 2 a b) 1 – 2 a c) 1 + a d) 41 – a
34. The volume of a colloidal particle, Vc as compared to the volume of a solute particle in a true solution
a) b) c) d)
35. The rason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of
a) electrostatic attractions b) van der Waal’s forces
c) dipote – dipole interaction d) hydrogen bonding
Sub – Chemistry
Full Test – IV (Group – 0)
Code : 9207.0
1. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The number of electrons with the Azimuthal quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2 are respectively
a) 12 and 4 b) 12 and 5 c) 16 and 5 d) 16 and 5
2. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in a hydrogen atom electron fails from in infinity to stanonary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097 x 107 m-1)
a) 91 nm b) 192 nm c) 406 nm d) 9.1 x 10-8 nm
3. In van der Waals equation of state of the gas law, the constant ‘b’ is measure of;
a) inter molecular repulsions b) inter molecular attraction
c) volume occupied by the molecules d) inter molecular collisions per unit volume
4. Which one of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius?
a) Li+ b) B3+ c) O2- d) F-
5. Which of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure?
a) XeF4 b) SF4 c) BF4 d) [Ni(CN)4]2-
6. The maximum number of 900 angles between bond pair – bond pair electrons is observed in
a) dsp2 hybridisation b) sp3 d hybridisation
c) dsp2 hybridisation d) sp3 d2 hybridisation
7. Which of the following compounds is not chiral?
a) 1 –chloropentane b) 2 –chloropentan
c) 1 – chloro – 2 – methyl pentane d) 3 – chloro – 2 – methyl – pentane
8. For which of the following parameters the structural isomers C2H5OH and CH3OCH3 would be expected to have the same values? (Assume ideal behavior)
a) Heat of vapourisation b) Vapour pressure at the same temperature
c) Boiling points d) 3 –chloro – 2 – methyl – petane
9. Which of the following has the minimum boiling point?
a) n – Butane b) 1 – butyne c) 1 – Butene d) isobutene
10. The IUPAC name of the compound is
CH3
HO CH3
a) 3, 3-dimethyl – 1 – hydroxyl cylohexane b) 1, 1 dimethyl – 3 – hydroxyl cyclohexene
c) 3, 3 – dimethyl – 1 – cyclohexanol d) 1, 1 – dimethyl – 3 – cyclohexanol
11. In a hydrogen oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to
a) generate heat b) create potential difference between the two electrodes
c) developing interlocking needle like crystals of hydrated silicates
d) remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surface
12. In curing cement plasters, water is sprinkled from time xo time. This helps in
a) converting sand to into silicic acid
b) keeping it cool
c) developing interlocking needle like crystals of hydrated silicates
d) hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement
13. Aluminium chloride exists as dimmer. AI2CI6 in solid state as well as in solution of non – polar solvents
Such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives
a) AI3+ b) [A(H2 O)6]3+ 3CI- c) [AI(OH)6]3- d) AI2O3 + 6HCI
14. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of phosphorous acid (H3PO3) the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH solution required is:
a) 10 mL b) 20 mL c) 40 mL d) 60 mL
15. The solution of Napolean army while at Alps during freezing winter suffered a serious problem as regards to the tin buttons of their uniforms. White metallic tin buttons got converted to grey powder. This transformation is related to
a) an interaction with nitrogen of the air at very low temparture
b) a change in the crystalline structures of tin
c) a change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air
d) an interaction with vapour contaned in the humid air
16. Which of the following noble gases is used in miner’s cap lamps?
a) Halium b) Neon c) Argon d) Krypton
17. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram below?
Na+ CI- Na+CI-Na+CI CI- CI- Na+ Na+
Na+ CI- Na+CI- Na+ CI- Na Na+
a) Frenkel defect b) Schottky defect c) Interstitial defect d) Frenkel and Schottly defects
18. The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene with chloral in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid , is
a) gammexene b) DDT c) Freon d) Thymine
19. On mixing ethyl acetate with aqueous sodium chloride, the composition of the resultant solution is
a) CH3COOC2H6 + NaCI b) CH3 COONa + C2H5OH
c) CH3COCI + C2H5OH d) CH3CI + C2H5COONa
20. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3Mgl followed by treatement with a saturated solution of NH4 CI gives:
a) Acetone b) acetamide d) 2- methyl -2-propanol d) acetyl iodide
21. Which of the following is reduced with zinc and hydrochloric acid to give the corresponding hydrocarbon?
a) Ethyl acetate b) Benzaldehyde c) Acetamide d) Butan - 2 – one
22. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2¬ is 1.0 x 10-5 mol L-1 Its solubility product will be
a) 1 x 10-10 b) 4 x 10-15 c) 4 x 10-10 d) 1 x 10-15
23. For the reaction equilibrium
N2O4 (g) 2N2O4 and NO2 at equilibrium are 4.8 x 10-2 at equilibrium are 4.8 x 10 -2 and 1.2 x 10-2 mol L3-1 respectively. The value of K6 for the reaction is
a) 3 x 103 mol L-1 b) 3.3 x 102 c) 3 x 10-1 mol L-1 d) 3.6 x 10-3 mol L-1
24. Consider the reaction equilibrium
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2 SO3 (g);
On the basis of Le Chatelier’s principle, the condition favourable for the forward reaction is
a) any value of temperature and pressure
b) lowering of temperature as well as pressure
c) increasing temperature as well as pressure
d) lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure
25. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) CI- is a Lewis acid
b) The pH of 10-8 M HCI solution is less than 7
c) The ionic product of water at 250 C is 10-14 mole2 – litre-2
d) Bronsted – Lowry theory could not explain the acidic character of AICI3
26. Which of the following is not a conjugate acid – base pair?
a) HPO , PO b) H2PO HPO c) H2PO , H3 PO4 d) H2PO PO
27. The decreasing values of bond angles from NH3 (1060) to SbH3 (1010) down group – 15 of the periodic table is due to
a) decreasing lp – bp repulsion b) decreasing electronegativity
c) increasing bp – bp repulsion d) increasing p – rbitial character is sp3
28. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
a) B2O3 b ZnO c) Na2O d) SO2
29. For a cell reaction involving a two electron change, the standard e.m.f. of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 250 C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 250C will be
a) 1 x 1010 b) 1 x 10-10 c) 29.5 x 10-2 d) 10
30. Which one of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule?
a) SO2 b) OH2 c) SH2 d) NH3
31. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H – X) is
a) HI > HCI > HF > HBr b) HCI <> HBr < HI
c) HF > HCI > HBr > HI d) HI > HBr > HCI > HF
32. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solution is of
a) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid b) 0.1 M fluroacetic acid
c) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid d) 0.1 M acetic acid
33. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solution. At 200 C, the vapour pressure of benzene, is 75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 200C for a solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is
a) 53.5 b) 37.5 c) 25 d) 150
34. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide and colloidal gold is positively and negatively charged respectively. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) Magnesium chloride chloride solution coagulates, the gold sol more readily than the iron (III) hydroxide solution
b) Mixing the solution can be brought about by electrophoresis
c) Coagulation in both solutions can brought about by electrophorsis
d) Sodium sulphate solution causes coagulation in both solutions
35. Identify the correct regarding enzymes:
a) Enzymes are specific blological catalysis that can normally function at very high temperature (T – 1000 K)
b) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysis that are very specific in their action
c) It is used to produce and sustain powerful superconducting magnets
d) Enzymes are specific biological biological catalysis that possess well defined active sites
Sub – Chemistry
Full Test – II (Group – 0)
Code : 9205.0
1. The orbital angular momentum for an electron revolving in orbit is given by . . This momentum for an s electron will be given by
a) b) + c) zero d)
2. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one the following inter – orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen?
a) 3 → 2 b) 5 → 2 c) 4 → 1 d) 2 → 5
3. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas, between two successive collisions, a gas molecule tra
a) nuclear neutron proton number rations b) in a circular path
c) in a wave path d) in a straight line path
4. According to the periodic law of elements, the variations in properties of elements is related to their
a) nuclear neutron proton number radios b) atomic masses
c) nuclear messes d) atomic number
5. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?
a) CF4, and NO2 b) NO2 and CO2 c) NO2 and O3 d) SiF4 and CO2
6. The pair of species having shapes for molecules of both species is
a) CF4, SF4 b) XeF2, CO2 c) BF3, PCI3 d) PF5, IF5
7. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H2SO4 the intiation step is
a) formation of an ester b) protonation of alcohols molecule
c) formation of carbocation d) elimination of water
8. In the atom HCOO- the two carbon oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?
a) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the acid molecules
b) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised
c) The C = O bond is weaker than C – O bond
d) The anion HCOO- has two resonating structures
9. Butane – 1 may be converted to butane by reaction with
a) Pd/H2 b) Zn – HCI c) Sn – HCI d) Zn – Hg
10. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with the ultraviolet light, it forms only one monochloroalkane.
a) neopentans b) propane c) pentane d) isopentane
11. Which of the following could act as propellant for rockets?
a) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen b) Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen
c) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon d) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen
12. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is
a) dolomite b) a marble statue c) calcined gypsum d) sea shells
13. The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively.
a) sp2 and sp2 b) sp2 and sp3 c) sp3 and sp2 d) sp3 and sp3
14. 25 ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a litre value of 35ml. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was
a) 0.35 b) 0.07 c) 0.14 d) 0.28
15. Glass is a
a) polymeric mixture b) micro – crystalline solid c) super – cooled liquid d) gel
16. What is the atomic number of the noble gas that reacts with fluorine?
a) 54 b) 10 c) 18 d) 2
17. How many unit cells are present in a cub – shaped ideal crystal of NaCI of mass 1.00g
(Atomic masses; Na = 23, CI = 35.5)
a) 1.71 x 1021 b) 2.57 x 1021 unit cells
c) 5.14 x 1021 unit cell d) 1.28 x 1021 unit cells
18. When CH2 = CH – COOH is reduced with LiAIH4, the com pound obtained will be
a) CH3 – CH2 – CHO b) CH3 – CH2 – COOH
c) CH2 = CH – CH2OH d) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH
19. The reaction of chloroform with a alcoholic KOH and p-toluidine forms
a) H3C NC b) H3C CN
c) H3C N2CI d) H3C
20. Nylon threads are made of
a) polyethylene polymer b) polyvinyl polymer
c) polyester polymer d) polyamide polymer
21. Bottles containing
C6H5l and C6H6 CH2 I
Lost their original labels. They were labelled A and B were separately taken in test tubes and boiled with HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substance B gave a yellow precipitate. Which on of the following statements is true for this experiment?
a) addition of HNO3 was unnecessary b) A was C6H6 I
c) A was C6 H5 CH2 I d) B was C6 H6 I
22. The correct relationship between free energy change in reaction and the corresponding equilibrium is
a) - ∆ G0 = RT in Kc b) ∆ G = RT in Kc
c) - ∆G = RT in Kc d) ∆ G0 = RT in Kc
23. At T(K), 100 litres of dry oxygen is present in a sealed container. It is subjected to silent electric discharge, till the volumes of oxygen and ozone become equal. What is the volume (in litres) of ozone formed at T(K)?
a) 40 b) 60 c) 30 d) 50
24. For the reaction system:
2NO(g) + O2 (g) 2NO2 (g) volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing the pressure of it. If the reaction is of first oreder with respetct to O2 and second order will respect to NO the rate of reaction will
a) increase to four times of its intial value b) diminish to one – fourth of its initial value
b) diminish to one –eight of its initial value d) increase to eight time of its initial value
25. Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity?
a) PH3 b) H2O c) H2S d) NH3
26. The conjugate base of H2PO-4 is
a) PO3-4 b) P2O5 c) H3PO4 d) HPO2-4
27. What may be expected to happen when phosphine gas is mixed with chlorine gas?
a) PH3 . CI2 is formed with warning up
b) The mixture only cools down
c) PCI3 and HCI are formed and the mixture cool down
d) PCI5 and HCI are formed and the mixture cools down
28. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are used. These are obtained by floating molten glass over a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The metal used can be
a) magnesium b) mercury c) tin d) sodium
29. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of ship to
a) prevent puncturing by under sea rocks b) keep away the sharks
c) make the ship lighter d) prevent action of water and salt
30. Which of the following is not correct?
a) 3O2 2O3; ∆H = - 284.5 kJ
b) ozone undergoes addition reaction with unsaturated carbon compounds
c) sodium thiosulphate reacts wth I2 to from sodium tetrathionate and sodium iodide
d) ozone oxidises lead sulphide to lead sulphate
31. Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open air sometimes produces a cloud of white fumes. The explanation for its is that
a) due to strong affinity for water, concentrated hydrochloric acid pulls, moisture of air towards itself. This moisture of air droplets of water and hence the cloud
b) Concentrated hydrochloric acid emits strongly smelling HCI gas hence the cloud
c) oxygen in air reacts with the emitted HCI gas to form a colud of chlorine gas
d) strong affinity of HCI gas for moisture in air results in forming of droplets of liquid solution, which appears like a cloudy smoke
32. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because
a) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in tempeture
b) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
c) boiling point of water involved in cooking in increased
d) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
33. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX the degree of ionisation is 0.3. Taking Kf for water as 1.85, the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to
a) +0.4800 C b) -0.4800 C c) -0.3600 C d) -0.2600 C
34. Which one of the following characteristics not correct for physical adsorption?
a) Both enthlphy and entropy of adsorption are negative
b) Adsorption on solids in reversible
c) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature
d) Adsorption is spontaneous
35. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
a) L – glucose b) D – fructose c) D – ribose d) D – glucose
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